I’m just asking…

I have sat on this idea for several days now and not having seen anything in the news inline with my thinking.  After considering the pro’s and con’s, I’m asking a relatively simple question.

Last week John Kass at the Tribune wrote an interesting piece on how Rahm had been removed from the voter rolls not once, but twice.  However both times, Rahm was later able to get reinstated and vote via absentee ballot.  For example, back in February of 2010 Rahm’s voter status was changed to “inactive.”  However, in the February 2 primary election:

[Emanuel] voted using an absentee ballot listing the Hermitage address even though the Halpin family lived there and they also voted from that address.

The one question no one in the media is asking is, how is this not voter fraud?